TL,WR: Why do we use signal energy as a measurement of an approximation's error, and not something "simpler" like the absolute value of the error?
Background: I'm reading through my textbook for my introduction to signals class, and they have just gotten to a point where they are discussing Fourier series representations of signals.
Specifically, they're talking about the square wave, and how it needs to be decomposed into an infinite number of harmonically related complex exponentials
$$x(t) = \sum_{k = -\infty}^{+\infty} a_k \cdot e^{j k \omega_0 t}$$ and how to get an approximation error, they want to use a finite number to represent it
$$e_N (t) = x(t) - x_{N} (t) = x(t) - \sum_{k = -N}^{+N} a_k \cdot e^{j k \omega_0 t}$$
Then they say,
In order to determine how good any particular approximation is, we need to specify a quantitative measure of the size of the approximation error. The criterion that we will use is the energy in the error over one period. $$E_N = \int_{T} | e_N (t) |^2 dt$$
Why did they choose to use this as the measurement of the error, instead of, say, the absolute value of the error? Integrals are "hard" (by which I mean more time-consuming) math, and I'd like to hear a justification from anyone who works with this stuff closely. I suppose doing it this way might reveal places where the error in the signal spikes, which could be useful information, but that's the only thing that pops to mind immediately.