Suppose a there is a coil which hasvelocity=0 and we can say it does not experience any force due to themagnetic field. There is no role of induced EMF in any case. If we place a stationary coil and another coil with a changing magnetic field, induced EMF is produced in the stationary coil. How does this happen?
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\$\begingroup\$ Abinaya - Hi, I think the question would be clearer if you edit it and add a diagram showing the setup & where you believe the magnetic fields to be etc. To me, the question is currently not clear e.g. you mention one coil is stationary (ok) but you don't say that the other coil is stationary - so does that mean the other coil is moving? If your experiment had two stationary coils, then I expect the question would say that - but it doesn't. It's also not explained how the 2nd coil has a "changing magnetic field". Can you clarify the question with a diagram and more details? TY \$\endgroup\$– SamGibson ♦Commented Sep 4 at 16:05
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\$\begingroup\$ How is this happening? This is probably better asked in the physics group. \$\endgroup\$– AaronCommented Sep 4 at 16:07
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\$\begingroup\$ Check out how coils are used to provide a high voltage spark for car ignition systems. \$\endgroup\$– Solar MikeCommented Sep 4 at 16:09
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\$\begingroup\$ There's a Maxwell equation for that. \$\endgroup\$– FredCommented Sep 4 at 17:05
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1 Answer
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Faraday's Law states that an EMF is induced whenever there's a change in magnetic flux.
Induced EMF doesn't require physical movement of the coil. It's really the change in the magnetic field that causes induction. When the magnetic field lines are changing, it alters the flux through the stationary coil. The change in flux is what produces EMF despite the coil not moving. Likewise, if the magnetic field is static, there won't be any induced EMF regardless of if the coil is moving.
This is pretty much the foundation of transformers.
