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I'm looking at this 10uF X5R ceramic MLCC capacitor.

I know that ceramic capacitors which aren't C0G have an significant variation of their value depending on voltage, temperature, aging, and frequency.

In the "Characteristic Data" section, there are the graphs of Cap. Change Rate[%] vs. DC Bias[V] and Cap. Change Rate[%] vs. AC Voltage[Vrms].

DC bias characteristics and AC voltage characteristics

I can't understand why on the DC bias characteristics, when the DC voltage is near 0V, the percentage is about 0%, while when AC voltage is near 0Vrms, the percentage is about -20%.
I thought that with AC voltage near 0Vrms the behaviour would be like a 0V DC bias, so the capacitor change rate about 0%, but it doesn't seem to behave like this.

If I suppose I'm using the capacitor in a DC circuit but there is an AC-like noise source somewhere, what will it be the behaviour of the change rate?

Can you explain this difference?

EDIT: Maybe my question isn't clear because I spent too many words to explain my doubt. In other words: if AC voltage[rms] is equal to 0V (see the graph) and DC component is 0V as described under the same graph, why does it have a change rate of 20%? It should be equivalent to having a DC bias of 0V, hence a change rate of 0%, but the graphs show a different behaviour.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ They characterize type II dielectric ceramics with an AC source of 0.5 V or sometimes 1 V, so that's where the datasheet rating comes from. If they're used with lower AC amplitude, there's less capacitance. \$\endgroup\$
    – John D
    Commented Jun 26 at 12:59
  • \$\begingroup\$ @JohnD so do you mean at lower AC voltages there is an estimation of the value of the change in capacitance? This explains part of my question, but not why at 0V they haven't the same value. \$\endgroup\$
    – Filippo
    Commented Jun 26 at 13:26
  • \$\begingroup\$ They rate the caps based on their testing, which occurs with an AC voltage on the cap. The capacitance changes with AC bias, you can read about the reasons for that here: mwrf.com/technologies/components/article/21135736/… \$\endgroup\$
    – John D
    Commented Jun 26 at 13:55
  • \$\begingroup\$ @JohnD Thank you for this article, it is well explained the meaning of DC and AC bias \$\endgroup\$
    – Filippo
    Commented Jun 27 at 9:57

3 Answers 3

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You seem to be interpreting the results without considering the test conditions.

Let's start with DC bias test.

The website says the capacitance vs DC bias is measured with 0.5VRMS AC signal (frequency not stated, Murata does have a PDF how they test it). Because it needs to be tested somehow, or you don't know the capacitance.

The DC curve means that a 10uF capacitor is said to be a 10uF capacitor only in those conditions, 0 VDC and 0.5 VAC. If you change the AC frequency or amplitude, the capacitance will measue something else than 10uF.

Which leads to the AC characteritcs. Same conditions apply. If you have same conditions you should have same capacitance.

Which is why at 0.5VAC and 0V bias, the AC curve equals the DC bias curve at 0V bias which was measured with 0.5VAC, so in the same conditions, where the measured capacitance is 10uF which is the rated capacitance.

So the 10uF capacitor is only a 8uF capacitor at pure DC.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ Now the conditions are clearer! I skipped the part of the DC bias graph which states that the test is performed with a voltage of 0.5 VAC. Thank you very much, sometimes forgetting a small detail makes everything very different \$\endgroup\$
    – Filippo
    Commented Jul 15 at 7:44
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Prerequisites: calculus, derivatives; E&M, static fields; definition of capacitance.

Consider the construction of a capacitor:

We have two parallel plates (or anything equivalent to them: a roll, a stack of plates, big sheets folded over..), between which a dielectric is placed.

When we apply voltage, we're setting the electric field in the dielectric. How much charge develops in return, depends on the dielectric constant, and the general response of the material.

We don't need the particular geometry of a component, we can resolve this question by considering material properties alone. Any given component will be proportional to these properties, rescaled by capacitance (area) and field strength (layer thickness).

If you've read about magnetism, you might've seen the B-H curve. Ferroelectric materials are the same way, but for electric fields. Consider the P-E curve of such a material:

enter image description here
From: https://resources.pcb.cadence.com/blog/2020-understanding-a-ferroelectric-hysteresis-loop-in-electronics

This says that, as field strength E increases, at first the polarization charge P goes up quickly (the dielectric constant dP/dE / ε = κ is high), but gradually it tapers off, and the material is saturated. That is, charge rises only slowly as field strength continues into saturation, asymptotically approaching κ → 1.

For BaTiO3 materials, ε might be reduced by 50% for field strengths in the 1V/μm ballpark, with breakdown occurring in the 100V/μm range, depending widely on dielectric quality of course. Typical high-density capacitors (say 10uF 6.3V in 0805) might have layers of a few 100 nm thick, so the reduction with bias can be strong even for small voltages.

But something is missing: the AC capacitance doesn't change; I mean, the average value will fall as peak amplitude goes into saturation, yes, but there's no shrinkage at small amplitudes. What gives?

The trick is, they lie to you. These B-H curves are rarely plotted in detail -- it's a smoothed-over cartoon of the real material, or at least a lie of omission. As it happens, if we reduce the amplitude and measure the B-H curve of a small loop, we find its slope shrinks. We have a diagram more like this:

enter image description here

It's tilted in the middle. There exists not just one, but a family of curves where, for large signals (going deep into saturation), the curve just goes far enough fast enough that you don't see the pinch; for modest levels, they are mostly linear (avoiding the saturation peaks); but for smaller curves, closer to zero, they slope down. In ferromagnetic materials, this gives the initial permeability, and the analogous effect appears in ferroelectric materials.

So, what the AC bias is doing, is pushing the curve out of the sloped initial region, into the bulk of the curve space where it's more linear, and (for the finished capacitor) closer to nominal value.

DC bias serves a similar purpose: notice the derivative at Vdc = 0 is flat, or maybe even a little positive. Sometimes it is positive, and the curve rises to a peak a few percent above nominal value. DC bias pushes the curve out of the initial region, at least in part.

When we measure capacitance, we're usually looking at cycle-averaged parameters: the in-phase and cross-phase components at the driven (sine wave) frequency. Thus, ignoring harmonic distortion, and reducing the element to an impedance. If the curve spends only a little time crossing the initial region (or amplitude x hysteresis is enough to push it out around from center), the average will read high. Only when much time is spent near zero (both AC and DC bias approaching zero), do we read the initial permittivity as such.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ Thanks for your explanation, this isn't actually the answer to my question but it's good to keep in mind though. \$\endgroup\$
    – Filippo
    Commented Jul 22 at 14:58
  • \$\begingroup\$ FYI, upvotes are the currency of thanks here -- consider upvoting answers you find helpful :) \$\endgroup\$ Commented Jul 22 at 20:21
  • \$\begingroup\$ Unfortunately I don't have enough reputation yet :( \$\endgroup\$
    – Filippo
    Commented Jul 23 at 11:38
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From your example case I assume that you are thinking of adding DC and AC bias together, but this is not how it works.

Think of DC bias as a change of charge capacity (like a battery) depending on voltage.

Think of AC bias as a change of impedance depending on AC amplitude.

With this in mind, you can see that DC and AC bias are completely different things.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ Thank you for your answer. At higher voltages I agree with you! The thing I don't understand is why at 0VDC we haven't any change in the capacitance, while at 0VAC there is a -20% of change. I think at 0V they should both be the same, but it isn't. \$\endgroup\$
    – Filippo
    Commented Jun 26 at 13:24
  • \$\begingroup\$ The change rate is not an absolute value!!! They could also write 0% at 0V and +20% at 0.5V for AC. Still the same! \$\endgroup\$ Commented Jun 26 at 14:47
  • \$\begingroup\$ Sorry if I explained myself poorly, that wasn't my point. What I think is that 0VAC bias should be equivalent to 0VDC bias in the behaviour of the capacitor. But i see a different change in capacitance (i.e. I think that if at 0VDC we have 0%, also 0VAC is 0%, but it's not!). The article attached by another user explains well the difference between the two bias, but doesn't explain this 0V point difference. \$\endgroup\$
    – Filippo
    Commented Jun 27 at 12:57

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