Your circuit doesn't really make any sense, in my opinion. Chances are, it was created almost at random and without any "intelligent actor" behind it. You'll see why I have that opinion in a moment.
Let's redraw that crazily laid out schematic, to start.
simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab
Let's analyze the schematic first by assuming that \$Q_2\$ is completely off (\$V_I=20\:\textrm{V}\$) and see where that leaves things.
Here's the KCL nodal equation for \$V_X\$:
$$\begin{align*}
\frac{V_X}{R_3} + \frac{V_X}{R_6} &= I_E + \frac{700\:\textrm{mV}}{R_3}\tag{Eq. 1}
\end{align*}$$
Where we know this from KVL:
$$\begin{align*}
V_X&=20\:\textrm{V} -I_E\cdot R_2-.7-\frac{I_E}{\beta_1+1}\cdot R_5\label{vx}\tag{Eq. 2}
\end{align*}$$
Let's see what assuming \$\beta_1=100\$ gets us:
$$\begin{align*}
I_E &\approx 1.916\:\textrm{mA}\\\\
V_X &\approx 8.772\:\textrm{V}
\end{align*}$$
From here, we can work out that \$I_{R_3}=\frac{V_X-700\:\textrm{mV}}{R_3}= 161.44\:\mu\textrm{A}\$. Given your own computation that \$I_{C_3}=3.96\:\textrm{mA}\$, this already works out to \$\beta_3\approx 24.5\$ and that is already well below your nominal value of \$100\$.
So it's clear, now, that without any contribution from \$Q_2\$ the circuit already puts \$Q_3\$ in at least a shallow saturation situation.
Okay. So now what? Well, \$Q_2\$ won't contribute anything until its base voltage is at least \$700\:\textrm{mV}\$ below the above-computed value for \$V_X\$. So \$V_I\le 8\:\textrm{V}\$, roughly speaking. As you imagine the value of \$V_I\$ declining towards (and perhaps below ground), \$Q_2\$ will start pulling away current and thereby gradually moving \$Q_3\$ out of saturation.
That will happen about when \$\beta_3=100\$, or when \$V_X\approx 2.7\:\textrm{V}\$. From \$\ref{vx}\$ above, we can easily work out that this happens when the emitter current is \$I_{E_1}\approx 3\:\textrm{mA}\$. Subtracting \$I_{B_3}\approx 40\:\mu\textrm{A}\$ and \$I_{R_3}\approx 540\:\mu\textrm{A}\$, this leaves about \$I_{C_2}\approx 2.42\:\textrm{mA}\$. As \$V_{CE_2} \approx 2.7\:\textrm{V}\$, \$Q_2\$ is not in saturation at this time so the full \$\beta_2=100\$ can be used and we figure \$I_{B_2}\approx 24.2\:\mu\textrm{A}\$. We know that \$V_{B_2}\approx 2\:\textrm{V}\$, so this means that \$V_I\le 2\:\textrm{V} - 100\:\textrm{k}\Omega\cdot 24.2\:\mu\textrm{A}\approx -420\:\textrm{mV}\$.
So now we know approximately where \$Q_3\$ leaves saturation and enters into active mode: \$V_I\le -420\:\textrm{mV}\$.
\$Q_3\$ is in saturation for all positive values of \$V_I\$ and computing the point where it leaves saturation is a bit nuanced. This is why I think the whole question was made up without much attention given to it. (It might be a good question if you are somewhat advanced in DC analysis.)