1
\$\begingroup\$

enter image description here

I need to find the voltage Vi for Q3 saturated with B = 100 for transistors.

I did the calculations and then simulated the circuit and i had similar results. the Question is: the analysis is right ?

My calculations:

If Q3 is in saturation then vce3 = 0.2v and with: 20 - 0.2 = 5kIc3 Ic3 = 0.00396 A, also Ib3 = 39.6 uA

If i suppose Vce1 aprox 0.2v and vcb3 = -0.5v: 19.8 - 0.2 - 0.5 - 1.98 = 5kIe1

then:

5kIe1 = 17.12V and Ie1 = 0.003424 A, Ib1 = 34.24 uA

but: Vcb1 = 1.712V and Q1 is not in saturation. Because: Vcb(sat) = -0.5v

Using:

5kIe1 + Vce1 = 17.32v , Vcb1 = 500Ie1 , Vce1 = Vcb1 + 0.7

solving:

      5KIe1 + Vcb1 = 16.62  
      500Ie1 - Vcb1 = 0

Ie1 = 0.003A, Ib1 = 30 uA, Vce1 = 2.2 v, Vcb1 = 1.5v 

For Q2 i can say that Vce2 = 2.68v and Vcb2 = 1.98v from 50kIb3 + 0.7 = Vce2 I3(5k) = Vce2/5k = 0.000536 A

With Ib1 + Ic1 = I3 + Ie2 + Ib3 Ie2 = Ib1 + Ic1 - I3 - Ib3

Ie2 = 2.4544 mA, Ib2 = 24.544 uA

Ending with:

     Vi = 1.98 - 100kIb2,   

     Vi = - 0.4744 V 

are the calculations right ?. I doubt about the ecuations:

        5kIe1 + Vce1 = 17.32V
        Vce1 = Vcb1 + 0.7 
        Vcb1 = 500Ie1

Seems right, but i didnt take in consideration the rest of the circuit.

Thanks a lot for your help and time.

\$\endgroup\$
2
  • \$\begingroup\$ You write, "Ic3 = 0.00396 A, also Ib3 = 39.6 uA", based on the idea of \$\beta=100\$. But \$Q_3\$ is saturated and that will not be the value of \$\beta\$ for it. So the base current will need to be much higher than you figured. How did you simulate using \$\beta=100\$ in your simulation? Did you modify the BJT models? \$\endgroup\$
    – jonk
    Commented Oct 27, 2017 at 16:15
  • \$\begingroup\$ I used the 2n2222 and the 2n2907 for the simulation. You are right, when the transistor is in saturation the Ic isnt BIb, my mistake, i thought that i could use that as the max Ib current before saturation on the transistor. \$\endgroup\$
    – Samu R
    Commented Oct 27, 2017 at 17:42

1 Answer 1

2
\$\begingroup\$

Your circuit doesn't really make any sense, in my opinion. Chances are, it was created almost at random and without any "intelligent actor" behind it. You'll see why I have that opinion in a moment.

Let's redraw that crazily laid out schematic, to start.

schematic

simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab

Let's analyze the schematic first by assuming that \$Q_2\$ is completely off (\$V_I=20\:\textrm{V}\$) and see where that leaves things.

Here's the KCL nodal equation for \$V_X\$:

$$\begin{align*} \frac{V_X}{R_3} + \frac{V_X}{R_6} &= I_E + \frac{700\:\textrm{mV}}{R_3}\tag{Eq. 1} \end{align*}$$

Where we know this from KVL:

$$\begin{align*} V_X&=20\:\textrm{V} -I_E\cdot R_2-.7-\frac{I_E}{\beta_1+1}\cdot R_5\label{vx}\tag{Eq. 2} \end{align*}$$

Let's see what assuming \$\beta_1=100\$ gets us:

$$\begin{align*} I_E &\approx 1.916\:\textrm{mA}\\\\ V_X &\approx 8.772\:\textrm{V} \end{align*}$$

From here, we can work out that \$I_{R_3}=\frac{V_X-700\:\textrm{mV}}{R_3}= 161.44\:\mu\textrm{A}\$. Given your own computation that \$I_{C_3}=3.96\:\textrm{mA}\$, this already works out to \$\beta_3\approx 24.5\$ and that is already well below your nominal value of \$100\$.

So it's clear, now, that without any contribution from \$Q_2\$ the circuit already puts \$Q_3\$ in at least a shallow saturation situation.

Okay. So now what? Well, \$Q_2\$ won't contribute anything until its base voltage is at least \$700\:\textrm{mV}\$ below the above-computed value for \$V_X\$. So \$V_I\le 8\:\textrm{V}\$, roughly speaking. As you imagine the value of \$V_I\$ declining towards (and perhaps below ground), \$Q_2\$ will start pulling away current and thereby gradually moving \$Q_3\$ out of saturation.

That will happen about when \$\beta_3=100\$, or when \$V_X\approx 2.7\:\textrm{V}\$. From \$\ref{vx}\$ above, we can easily work out that this happens when the emitter current is \$I_{E_1}\approx 3\:\textrm{mA}\$. Subtracting \$I_{B_3}\approx 40\:\mu\textrm{A}\$ and \$I_{R_3}\approx 540\:\mu\textrm{A}\$, this leaves about \$I_{C_2}\approx 2.42\:\textrm{mA}\$. As \$V_{CE_2} \approx 2.7\:\textrm{V}\$, \$Q_2\$ is not in saturation at this time so the full \$\beta_2=100\$ can be used and we figure \$I_{B_2}\approx 24.2\:\mu\textrm{A}\$. We know that \$V_{B_2}\approx 2\:\textrm{V}\$, so this means that \$V_I\le 2\:\textrm{V} - 100\:\textrm{k}\Omega\cdot 24.2\:\mu\textrm{A}\approx -420\:\textrm{mV}\$.

So now we know approximately where \$Q_3\$ leaves saturation and enters into active mode: \$V_I\le -420\:\textrm{mV}\$.


\$Q_3\$ is in saturation for all positive values of \$V_I\$ and computing the point where it leaves saturation is a bit nuanced. This is why I think the whole question was made up without much attention given to it. (It might be a good question if you are somewhat advanced in DC analysis.)

\$\endgroup\$
2
  • \$\begingroup\$ That redraw helps a lot in the circuit analisys, ill keep it in my mind when solving this type of circuits. Thanks for your help jonk, have a nice day. \$\endgroup\$
    – Samu R
    Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 17:25
  • \$\begingroup\$ @SamuR Thanks for the kind words. And yes, I redraw circuits all the time to gain insight. A lot of folks don't actually draw good schematics intended for communication. Some do it poorly by intention. \$\endgroup\$
    – jonk
    Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 18:19

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.