I've been attempting to prove the taught result that:
$$T_p=\frac{\pi}{\omega_n\sqrt{1-\zeta^2}}\textrm{.}$$
From the time-domain form of an underdamped response, we have
$$c(t)=K_1e^{-\sigma_dt}\cos(\omega_dt-\phi)\textrm{.}$$
In an attempt to find maxima, the first derivative has been found as
$$\frac{dc(t)}{dt}=K_1\left(-\sigma_de^{-\sigma_dt}\cos(\omega_dt-\phi)-\omega_de^{-\sigma_dt}\sin(\omega_dt-\phi)\right)\textrm{.}$$
From here, assuming \$K_1\textrm{, }e^{-\sigma_dt}\ne0\$, the maxima are found at
$$\omega_d\sin(\omega_dt-\phi)+\sigma_d\cos(\omega_dt-\phi)=0\textrm{.}$$
Re-arranging for \$t\$, we find
$$t=\frac{-\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\sigma_d}{\omega_d}\right)+\phi +n\pi}{\omega_d}\textrm{.}$$
The denominator clearly aligns with the taught result, as the damped frequency is related as such to the natural frequency. However, I do not see how the numerator aligns to \$\pi\$. Where does the \$\tan\$ term go? I'm aware that we're hunting for the first peak, so it makes sense for \$n=0/1\$? Any help would be appreciated.